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Pharmacy Prep Qualifying (MCQ) Exams Sample Questions


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Within this post you will find Sample Questions from all competencies test from the Qualifying Exam Part 1 (MCQ) Pre-course offered by Pharmacy Prep. For each competency test there are 3 sample questions actual competency test consist of 150 questions per test available in class or online with our Home study program.

 

Qualifying Exam Part 1 (MCQ)

 

Competency 1 &2

 

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Patient Care, Ethics and Regulations

 

1. List of RX drugs with narcotics PREP, controlled, targeted and prescription drugs respectively. How many prescriptions are valid for a year?

1. Butalbital/ ASA/Caffeine /Codeine (FIORINAL C1/4 OR C1/2)

2. Prochlorperazine

3. Tramadol

4. Dexamphetamine

5. Clonazepam

6. Nortriptyline

A. 6 B. 5 C. 2 D. 1

Ans. D

Tips: only benzodiazepine prescription expire in one year.

 

2. All of the following can prescribe narcotics, except?

A. podiatrist

B. nurse practitioner

C. midwife

D. Physiotherapist

Ans. D

Tips: veterinary, dentist, midwife, nurse practitioner, physician, podiatrist. (CANNOT prescribe registered nurse, registered practical nurse, nurse educators).

 

4) A patient is on phenelzine for the past 3 mo. currently looking for OTC nasal congestion. What is best action to do?

A) Pseudoephedrine

B- Codeine syrup

C) Dextromethorphan

D) Desloratadine

Ans. D

Tips: Phenelzine and Tranylcypromine are potent MAOi have high drug interaction. Pseudoephedrine with MAOi cause hypertension crisis. Dextromethorphan with MAOi cause serotonin syndrome.

 

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QE Competency 3 Calculations

(Module 3 Managing Drug Distribution)

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1) A hospital pharmacist received the following order Nafcillin sodium 800 mg in 100 mL NS. The pharmacist uses a 1 g vial of nafcillin with label directions as follows: “When reconstituted with 3.4 mL of diluents, each vial contains 4 mL of solution.” However, he reconstitutes the vial with 5 mL of sterile water instead of 3.4 mL as directed on the label. How much of the solution should be added to 100 mL of normal saline for the required dose?

A) 5.6 ml

B)4.48 ml

C) 5 ml

D) 4 ml

Ans. B

 

Tips.

Volume occupied by powder = 4 mL – 3.4 mL = 0.6 mL

Total volume mistakenly diluted = 5 mL + 0.6 mL = 5.6 mL

1 g ------ 5.6 ml

800 mg ......?

(5.6 mL/1000 mg) x 800 mg

= 4.48 mL

 

2) The directions for cefamandole for IM injection are as follows:

“Reconstitute each gram of cefamandole with 3 mL of one of the following diluents: sterile water for injection, bacteriostatic water for injection, 0.9% sodium chloride injection or bacteriostatic sodium chloride injection.”

 

What would be the final concentration of a 2 g vial of cefamandole if constituted according to the directions?

A) 333 mg/ml

B)6 mg/ml

C) 9 mg/ml

D) 12 mg/ml

Ans. A

 

TIPS:

Volume of diluents to add = (2 g x 3 mL) /1g = 6 mL

Concentration of solution = 2 g/6 mL= 333 mg/Ml

 

3) At 11:30 am, you receive an order in the hospital pharmacy with instructions to decrease the flow rate on a patient’s IV to 50 mL/hr. When you check this patient’s profile, you find that he was receiving D51/2NS 1000 mL at 85 mL/hr and that the next bag was started at 9:00 am. When should the next bag of D51/2NS be started, assuming that the nurse changed the IV rate on the existing bag at 11:30 am?

A) 9:00 am

B)11:30 pm

C) 9:00 pm

D) 3:15 am

E) 10:00 am

Ans: D

 

Tips. 9:00 am to 11:30 am = 2.5 hours

85 mL/1 hr x 2.5 hr = 212.5 mL infused at 11:30 am

1,000 mL – 212.5 mL = 787.5 mL left at 11:30 am

(787.5 mL x 1 hour)/50 mL = 15.75 hr (15 HR. 45 MIN)

The IV will last for 15 hours, 45 minutes after the rate is changed to 50 mL/hr.

Adding 15 hours, 45 minutes to 11;30 am, the next bag of IV solution should be started at 3:15 am.

 

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Pharmacy Prep

 

QE Competency 4

Pharmacy Management (Practice Setting) MOCK TEST

 

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1. A doctor want to prescribe Canagliflozin (Invokana) tab 300 for his patient, want your recommendation about canaglifazin and ask about the new medication; fasting blood sugar 8 mmol/L, A1c 8%,GFR 60 ml/min, Scr 80 mmol/L. Patient current medication includes. metformin 500 mg bid, gliclazide MR 60 mg, furosemide 20 mg daily. Omega 3, 1g and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily. Which of the following is pharmacist concern?

A. patient hyperkalemia

B. Patient using loop diuretics

C. HbA1C decrease 0.5 to 1%.

D. Acts on kidney Na cotransporter. Spills lots of sugar into urine can cause UTIs.

E. All of the above

Ans. B

Tips. Side effect: hypotension, weight loss, hypovolemia (dehydration) and hyperkalemia. And loop diuretic diuretics increase risk of hypotension. Should not be prescribed if GFR 45 ml/min. Can cause vaginal candidiasis and urinary tract infections.

 

2. A regular customer of your pharmacy on insurance as follows deductible of $100. He already paid $63.25 before co-payment of 10% of each prescription. One day he came with prescription. Its total price is $87.25. Including $15 as dispensing fee. His insurance covered $10 dispensing fee only. What customer pay?

A. $25 B. $77.50 C. $49 D. $36.75

Ans. C

 

TIPS:

$100 - $63.25 = $36.75 (remaining deductible)

$87.5 - $10 = $77.50

$77.50 -$36.75 = $40.25

$40.25 + $8.75 = $49

or

$100 - $63.25 = $36.75 (remaining deductible)

$36.75 + $5 + $7.25 = $49

 

3) Who regulates opening and operating hours of pharmacy stores?

A) NAPRA

B)College of pharmacy or provincial colleges

C)Pharmacy Manager

D)Pharmacy owner

Ans. B

Tips. if it is regulation or regulates by college of provincial. Who sets schedule or opening or closing, shifts by owner/manager. However policies and procedure are made pharmacy owner/manager.

 

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QE Competency 5 & 7

Communication skills and Health Promotion Strategies

MOCK Test

 

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1. A patient on methadone maintenance treatment (MMT), missed 3 consecutive doses. What is pharmacist concern?

a. If a regular dose of methadone is given after a period of missed doses, there is risk of overdose and death

B. Methadone regulatory problem

C. Methadone prescriber burden to rewrite prescription

D. Pharmacist excessive work

Ans. A

Tips: Pharmacy connection, Fall 2013, page 22: The importance missed doses in methadone MMT.

 

Early stabilization phase (0-2 wks):

1 day missed.........Resume same dose

2 consecutive days missed........restart initial dose 10-30 mg for least 3 days

 

Late stabilization: maintenance:

1-2 days missed........ no change

3 consecutive missed......... restart at 50% regular dose or decrease 30 mg

 

 

2. If patient missed 3 consecutive dose of methadone, and methadone prescriber is away on vacation. What is appropriate to do?

A. Wait till methadone prescriber returns from vacation

B. Ask other prescriber to get methadone prescription license

C. Ask patient to get prescription from walk in clinic

D. Stop taking methadone treatment

Ans. B

Tips: Methadose (Methadone Hydrochloride Oral Concentrate) can only be prescribed by physicians who have received an exemption pursuant to section 56 of the CDSA from the Minister of Health Canada to prescribe methadone (see Condition for Distribution and Use of Methadone). Patients prescribed methadone should be carefully monitored and provided appropriate supportive psychological and social services.

 

 

3. A patient missed 1 or 2 doses frequently. What is appropriate to do?

A. Communicate MMT prescriber in timely fashion

B. Discontinue MMT treatment

C. Stop dispensing methadone

D. no concern with 1-2 dose missed

Ans. A

Tips: Stability of Methadone According to the Diluents used and Conditions of Storage (Aug. 1994 Dispensing of Methadone for the Treatment of Opioid Dependence, Health Canada)

 

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QE Competency 6

Patient Care and Drug Information Resources, Access, Retrieval

MOCK TEST

 

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1) The voluntary systems reporting of suspected adverse drug reactions (ADR) during post marketing monitoring and post marketing safety studies. The ADRs should be reported to all of the following populations, except?

A) Women of child bearing age with a new side effects

B- Patient with concurrent diseases a new side effects

C) Seniors older than 65 yr age with known side effects of drug

D) Rare serious adverse drug reactions and new side effects

Ans. C

Tips. ADR is requiring for all of the above populations. All this is done during post marketing monitoring. Health Canada Medeffect program has vigilance program gather all ADRs. Health Canada therapeutic access strategy (TAS) is responsible post marketing surveillance study.

 

2) A high cholesterol patient is asking for dose and benefit of omega fatty acid. What is the appropriate to do?

A) Use Compendium of Therapeutic Minor ailments

B- Use Compendium Products for Minor Ailment

C) Refer to dietician

D) Use Compendium of pharmaceutical Specialties

Ans. A

Tips: CTMA. Chapter nutrition has information of omega fatty acids. Who should be referred dietician? Diabetic, obese, weight loss, hypertension, and cholesterol.

 

Eating Well with Canada's Food Guide: omega dose can be found in eating well with Canada Food guide.

CTMA: Weight loss diets, artificial sweeteners, infant nutrition and special diets.

Diabetic patient wants to know diabetic meal? Refer to diabetic dietician (dietician with diabetic managements can individualized nutrition recommendations and also provide carbohydrate containing, timing of insulin.

 

3) Which of the following measures can prevent these type mix ups!

A) Include the generic name throughout the prescription process like clopidogrel for Plavix and dabigatran etexilate for Pradaxa.

B- Read label with patient at counselling point

C) Read label at the time taking drug from shelf and read label at the time of counting and placing bottle back into shelf

D) Consider automated alert system in computers

ANS. A

Tips. Mix up error cause due to drug name confusions sound alike, look alike.

Academic detailing enhances prescription practice. Economic details enhance business of pharmacy reps.

 

Must read. Error prone abbreviations and dosage designations.

Look-alike and sound alike drug names. Strategies and actions to prevent this happening.

 

 

 

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QE Competency 8

Collaboration and Team Work MOCK Test

 

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1) RKP is 65 year old patient being treated with warfarin to prevent blood clots may be prescribed diclofenac and misoprostol combination (Arthrotec) by another specialist to treat arthritis. If taken together, the patient could experience internal bleeding. Upon reviewing the patient's prescriptions, the pharmacist notes the potential drug interaction and contacts the prescriber to alert him/her to the problem. Pharmacist evaluating a patient's planned drug therapy before a medication is dispensed is involved in?

A) Prospective drug utilization review

B)Retrospective drug utilization review

C) Reactive drug utilization review

D) Common Drug Review

E) Med Review

Ans. A

• Prospective - evaluation of a patient's therapy before medication is dispensed

• Concurrent - ongoing monitoring of drug therapy during the course of treatment

• Retrospective - review of therapy after the patient has received the medication (medical records).

 

2) Laura woods a clinical pharmacist she visits primary care physician for academic detailing meeting, she presents charts and evidence information in inhalation therapy in COPD? What is incorrect therapeutic action for COPD management?

A) Short acting bronchodilators as needed used for mild COPD

B- If COPD persist long acting bronchodilators like tiotropium is added

C) If COPD persist add long acting beta agonist to tiotropium

D) In COPD inhaled corticosteroids are used for patient FEV1

Ans: D

Tips: TC page 658 -659. Oral corticosteroid improve lung function and shorten length of hospital stay in all patients and reduce risk of early relapse. A 10-14 days course of oral prednisone 30-40 mg/day or equivalent is sufficient.

Tips: Promotes evidence based information to healthcare professional.

 

3) Acute exacerbation of COPD severe dyspnea, increase sputum production doctor will initiate anti-inflammatory drugs like?

A) Prednisone 7 to 10 days

B- Inhaled corticosteroids

C) Iv antibiotics

D) In bronchodilators

Ans: A

Tips. Anti-inflammatory steroids. However if patient have dyspnea, cough and sputum may require initiating antibiotic therapy. Purulent discharge, fever may require to initiated antibiotic therapy.

CTC7 658. In acute exacerbations bronchodilatation is optimized by increasing the dose and frequency of existing bronchodilator treatment. Treat dyspnea patient with SABA and ipratropium. Apart from optimizing bronchodilators patient with purulent acute exacerbations benefit from antibiotics.

 

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